West Village, CO Divorce Law Firms & Lawyers

Hi Ann-Michelle, Thank you for your inquiry.  For Colorado to have jurisdiction over your divorce, either you or the other party must have lived in Colorado for at least 91 days before the divorce is filed.  For Colorado to have jurisdiction over issues pertaining to the children, the children must have lived in Colorado for at least 182 consecutive days prior to the filing date (or since birth if the children are under 6 months).  If you file in Colorado despite the children not living in Colorado for those time periods, then the court cannot address any issues regarding the children.  If you and the other party agree to share parenting time and decision-making over the children, and you both agree on the division of marital assets, then: (1) that's a good omen; and (2) it would be prudent to file the divorce as soon as practicable.  In my experience, the longer a party waits to file for divorce, the more likely there will be disputes to arise beteen the parties concerning the children and the division of marital assets. My firm handles dissolutions of marriage throughout Colorado.  If any of this is unclear, or if you would like to disucss your matter further, please feel free to reach out to me. Have a wonderful day, Genet NOTICE: Exchanging messages with Genet T. Johnson, Esq. on Lawyers.com Ask a Lawyer does not create an attorney-client relationship with Genet T. Johnson and the law firm of Johnson Law Group, LLC, nor does doing so impose any obligations on Johnson Law Group, LLC to treat any information you send as confidential.  No attorney-client relationship is formed until you and Johnson Law Group, LLC have signed an Engagement Agreement setting for the terms and conditions of representation.

In Colorado neither parent may relocate a child out of state until there is a written agreement by the other parent or a court order. That rule does not apply when there are no children. Physical absence may or may not make completing the divorce process more difficult or time consuming.

The correct question is probably not whether the firm "can", but whether it "should", bill you for services it previously failed to bill you for. The answer is that it probably depends on what they are now billing for (& how much) and why the mistake occurred. If the refund statement did not clearly state that your account was "paid in full" or there is something in the fee agreement authorizing billing after a refund, it may come down to a question of whether or not you were justified in believing the refund meant you were "paid in full" or whether you should have realized there was a mistake.